Which Bible is correct?
Which Bible should we use?
I remember when I was a young child thinking about how I could know which doctrine was the true doctrine. The conclusion that I came to at that time, was that the oldest doctrine must be the true doctrine. It seemed very simple and logical to me at that time. How could it be any other way? These are the thoughts of an innocent child and do not take into account the capabilities of the master of deception.
In the first century, soon after Christ had ascended to heaven, the New Testament of the Bible was written. The New Testament was complete before the year 100 A.D.. The manuscripts from which the New Testament was copied originated from the areas where the Apostles who wrote them lived such as Jerusalem, and Syria. These manuscripts were copied into many different languages and were spread around the world telling the "good news" to all who would listen. These original manuscripts have all been lost now. During this same period of time, there were already people under inspiration of a different kind which had begun to corrupt the word of God. The Bible tells us this is true.
KJV 2Co 2:17 For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God: but as of sincerity, but as of God, in the sight of God speak we in Christ.
This verse shows that satan was busy corrupting the word of God in order to deceive us shortly after Christ had ascended to heaven. It is no different than how he began corrupting the word of God to deceive Adam and Eve shortly after creation. It is the same old trickery that the father of the lie has used from the beginning. Today, we have many different Bibles to choose from. How can we know which is the correct word of God, when the Bible itself tells us that the corruption began before the original was even complete? This verse was put into our Bibles so that we would know to look out for this deception and it is very helpful. It tells us that the age of a manuscript is irrelevant to its validity as the true word of God. We should already know this. After all, there are many stone carvings that predate the new testament which depict various pagan deities which we know are of satan. So much for my simplistic childhood theory that "the oldest must be the correct one".
Today, there are basically two streams of doctrine. The original manuscripts for both streams of doctrine are long lost. Still, both streams of doctrine are based upon very old manuscripts. We will call the two streams of doctrine, the Catholic/Jesuit doctrine and the Received Text (Textus Recepticus). The oldest manuscripts belong to the Catholic/ Jesuit stream, however we have already determined that older does not equate to accurate in this case. The majority of the manuscripts (over 1900) belong to the Received text. Is "more" necessarily better? How can we know which is the correct stream? The Bible itself will give us that answer.
KJV Psa 12:6 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Psa 12:7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.
These verses tell us that the word of God is pure, it will not contradict itself and God will preserve His word for all generations. If either of these two streams of doctrine violate either of those two principles, it is not of God. The Catholic/Jesuit doctrine stream is based upon four manuscripts. They are:
P66 Found in 1952 in Egypt and dated to around the year 200 A.D.
P75 Found in 1952 in Egypt and dated to between 175-225 A.D.
The Vatican manuscript found in 1481 in the Vatican library
The Sinaitic manuscript found in 1844 in a trash receptacle at the monastery of St. Catherine at mount Sinai.
Up until 1481 the whole of Christianity was using the Received Text (Textus Recepticus). I stated before that the oldest manuscript belonged to the Catholic/Jesuit stream. What I failed to mention was that this ancient manuscript was not found until 1481. To understand how this came to be, we must travel back to 331 A.D.. Constantine is in power in Rome. He has instituted a policy of freedom of worship with some exclusions for those of the Jewish faith. Constantine is said to be the first Roman emperor to have converted to Christianity. Whether or not he fully converted is a matter of debate, since he was still engaged in and encouraging paganism well into his rule.
In 331 a.d. Constantine ordered an ecumenical manuscript. What is ecumenical? According to dictionary.com it means: general; universal. However the definition goes on to describe a particularly "Christian" application. This "Christian" connotation was not the case at the time of Constantine though. Constantine was attempting to unite the pagans and the Christians, not Christians and Christians. Constantine ordered a manuscript that would bring ALL religions together. This would mean that Christ could not be held in higher esteem than any pagan deity in the manuscript that Constantine ordered. He wanted a manuscript that would be acceptable to pagans and Christians. He wanted to merge polytheism (worship of many gods) and monotheism (worship of one God, in this case Christ). Constantine assigned this task to Eusebius, a follower of Origen Adamantius. Early Christians rejected this manuscript, and its 50+/- copies were forced into secret libraries in Rome and Alexandria where they remained for centuries. In 1481 the Vatican manuscript was found in the Vatican Library. This manuscript is thought to be the manuscript that Eusebius wrote at the command of Constantine. This manuscript includes the "Arian heresy" that Jesus was not God. It repeatedly denies the deity of Christ. Remember, Constantine's goal was to have an ecumenical manuscript to unite the pagans and the Christians. This would require Christ to be brought down to the level of the pagan deities. If we are to accept this manuscript as the definitive word of God, then we must believe that God hid the truth from the world from the time of Christ until 1481. We would have to accept that for almost 15 centuries, God denied access to His word and allowed the people living during those times to only have access to the wrong Bible. Doesn't that violate the promise of God to preserve His word for ALL generations that we looked at in Psalms 12:7?
If God kept His word secret for almost 1500 years, wouldn't that also contradict these verses?
KJV Isa 45:19 I have not spoken in secret, in a dark place of the earth: I said not unto the seed of Jacob, Seek ye me in vain: I the LORD speak righteousness, I declare things that are right.
Isa 48:16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me.
Mar 4:22 For there is nothing hid, which shall not be manifested; neither was any thing kept secret, but that it should come abroad.
Luk 8:17 For nothing is secret, that shall not be made manifest; neither any thing hid, that shall not be known and come abroad.
Luk 11:33 No man, when he hath lighted a candle, putteth it in a secret place, neither under a bushel, but on a candlestick, that they which come in may see the light.
Near the beginning of this article I stated that the "original manuscripts were copied into many different languages and were spread around the world telling the "good news" to all who would listen". What is interesting is that we can travel around the world today and pick up any Non Catholic/Jesuit Bible printed before 1900 and they will all be virtually identical in their content. Their message is consistent. This message is also consistent with the Received Text. It seems miraculous that this message which was starting to be translated into 100's of different languages nearly 2 thousand years ago has come down through time unchanged across all borders from one end of the globe to the other. How could this be, if not for the promise of God as set forth in Psalms 12:6 and 7? The Received Text or Textus Recepticus doctrine stream originates from more than 1900 manuscripts found in the areas where the Apostles preached, not documents found in Egypt or Rome. They were certainly not found in the garbage as is the case with the Sinaitic manuscript. The received Text is the word of God. Now that we know that, how do we know which Bible is based upon the Received Text? There are several English Bibles which claim to be based upon the received text. However, there is only one which is virtually identical in content to all those other Bibles printed before 1900 in all those different languages. That is the King James Version.
Many people have a hard time reading the King James version and find that many of the newer versions are easier to understand. It is true that many of the newer versions are easier to understand, but is the message contained in them consistent with the Received Text? Let's examine several verses now so we can all make an informed decision on this subject. For the sake of space I will abbreviate the Bible versions and have included an abbreviation key at the bottom of this article.
First, pick up your Bible and look for these verses: Mathew 17:21, 18:11, 23:14, Mark 7:16, 9:44, 9:46, 11:26, 15:28, Luke 17:36, 23:17, John 5:4, Acts 8:37, 15:34, 24:7, 28:29, Romans 16:24.
These verses are simply missing from many Bibles. In fact there are many verses removed from most of the newer Bibles. As an example we can open the Bible to the middle of the book of Acts. From that point to the end of the book of Revelation is the equivalent of how many words are missing from the NIV translation.
The NIV is not alone though. Take a look at this information which is quoted from the book titled "Which Bible can we trust?"
Verses effected by changing the Bible
New American Standard 909
Revised New American Standard 788
New World Translation 767
Good News 614
Old Jehovah's Witnesses 120
NKJ ignored the Textus Recepticus (Received text) 1200 times
Src: Which Bible can we trust? Les Garret, Christian Centre Press. 1982
Mark 16 9-20 has been removed from the Jehovah's witness Bible because it describes Jesus' physical resurrection.
Some Bibles simply attempt to discredit these verses in the margins.
Let's take a little journey through just a small fraction of the many changes that these newer Bibles have made. You decide whether these changes are important. Are these newer Bibles just better translations or have the translators attempted to promote a different doctrine? Some of these Bibles are based upon the Catholic/Jesuit stream discussed earlier. Some however claim to be based upon the Textus Recepticus.
Is Jesus God?
KJV Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
NWT 1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
John 1:1 was changed in some Bibles. The New Word Translation says: "and the Word was a god" Instead of Word was God. Notice the little g. In effect calling the Word (Jesus) a pagan deity
Is Jesus God, or a liar?
KJV Rev 1:11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.
Here Jesus tells us that He is God. However many of the newer translations remove the phrase "I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last" .
NLV It said, "Write in a book everything you see, and send it to the seven churches in the cities of Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamum, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia, and Laodicea."
Should the translators remove such an important statement. Either Jesus is God as He says, in which case we must worship Him, or He is a liar in which case we must reject Him as a false prophet.
Is there a Triune God? If so, what makes up the three parts of the Triune God?
KJV 1Jn 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
The NIV, NLT, ESV, NASB, ISV, GWT, DBT, WEB and other Bibles simply say "there are three that testify". These Bibles do not identify the three. Could it be the father, the mother and the sun?
The ABIPE, ASV, and the ERV do not say there are three. They only speak of the spirit.
These 11 bibles differ dramatically from the meaning found in the King James Version which tells us there are three that bear record in heaven and also tells us which three. The Father, the Word (Jesus Christ - see John 1:14 KJV), and the Holy Ghost.
Are we to believe in Jesus Christ?
KJV Joh 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life.
NLT I tell you the truth, anyone who believes has eternal life.
The NIV, NLT, NASB, ESV and more bibles leave out the phrase "on me". These Bible are removing the deity of Jesus. If we take out the "on me", what exactly are we to believe? I believe the sky is blue. Does that get me everlasting life?
Who killed Goliath?
The KJV and the NIV both tell us that David killed Goliath in 1 Samuel 17:50.
KJV 1Sa 17:50 So David prevailed over the Philistine with a sling and with a stone, and smote the Philistine, and slew him; but there was no sword in the hand of David.
NIV 1Sa 17:50 So David triumphed over the Philistine with a sling and a stone; without a sword in his hand he struck down the Philistine and killed him.
Both Bibles agree on this point. However, an issue arises in 2 Samuel 21:19 when the NIV contradicts itself by telling us that "Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath".
NIV 2Sa 21:19 In another battle with the Philistines at Gob, Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite, who had a spear with a shaft like a weaver's rod.
The same verse in the KJV tells us that it was the brother of Goliath that Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew.
KJV 2Sa 21:19 And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
Note: While editing this page on 8/23/14, I noticed that the most current edition of the NIV has been changed to reflect that it was the brother of Goliath that was killed in 2Sa 21:19. However the NIV also has a footnote that discredits this change.
Does Judah rule with God or against God?
KJV Hos 11:12 Ephraim compasseth me about with lies, and the house of Israel with deceit: but Judah yet ruleth with God, and is faithful with the saints.
The KJV says "with God" the NIV says "against God"
NIV Ephraim has surrounded me with lies, the house of Israel with deceit. And Judah is unruly against God, even against the faithful Holy One.
Did Jesus come to save?
KJV Mat 18:11 For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost.
This verse is missing from the NIV, NLT, ESV, GWT, ERV and the WNT. Isn't that an important verse?
The day or the hour of what?
KJV Mat 25:13 Watch therefore, for ye know neither the day nor the hour wherein the Son of man cometh.
The NIV and the RSV do not tell us what we don't know the day or the hour of. Would God make such a vague statement?
NIV Therefore keep watch, because you do not know the day or the hour.
Is Jesus part of the God Head? Does Jesus know when He will return?
KJV Mat 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
The NIV, NLT, ESV, NASB, ISV, GWT, ASV, ERV and the WNT all tell us that Jesus does not know when He will return. The translations are implying that Jesus is not part of the God Head by adding "nor the Son" to God's word.
NIV No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.
Must we repent?
KJV When Jesus heard it, he saith unto them, They that are whole have no need of the physician, but they that are sick: I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.
The KJV says we must repent. The NIV, NLT, ESV, NASB, ISV, GWT, ASV, DBT, ERV, WNT and the YLT make no mention of repentance.
NASB And hearing this, Jesus said to them, "It is not those who are healthy who need a physician, but those who are sick; I did not come to call the righteous, but sinners
Is there a Judgment Day?
KJV Mar 6:11 And whosoever shall not receive you, nor hear you, when ye depart thence, shake off the dust under your feet for a testimony against them. Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Sodom and Gomorrha in the day of judgment, than for that city.
The NIV and several other Bibles leave off the judgment spoken of in this verse. Why? Is Judgment Day not important?
NIV And if any place will not welcome you or listen to you, shake the dust off your feet when you leave, as a testimony against them
Is it difficult to enter the kingdom of God?
KJV Mar 10:24 And the disciples were astonished at his words. But Jesus answereth again, and saith unto them, Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God!
ESV And the disciples were amazed at his words. But Jesus said to them again, "Children, how difficult it is to enter the kingdom of God!
The KJV says that it is hard for those who trust in riches to enter into the Kingdom of God. The NASB, ESV, NIV and the NLT state that it is just difficult to enter the Kingdom of God. These Bibles make no mention of the difficulty applying only to those who trust in riches. However, all of these Bibles appear to closely agree with the KJV in another verse which states that God's commandments are not difficult.
KJV 1Jn 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.
ESV For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments. And his commandments are not burdensome.
This appears to be a contradiction with these Bibles, but the KJV remains consistent.
Should we trust a Bible that removes a clue given by Jesus?
KJV Mar 13:14 But when ye shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing where it ought not, (let him that readeth understand,) then let them that be in Judaea flee to the mountains:
Jesus gave us a clue as to where to look to find information on how to identify the "abomination of desolation". Jesus told us we could find this information in the writings of Daniel, yet the NIV, NLT, ESV, NASB, ISV, GWT, ASV, DRB, ERV and WNT all remove this important clue. What motivation could there be for removing this clue other than preventing the reader from identifying the abomination of desolation?
WNT As soon, however, as you see the Abomination of Desolation standing where he ought not" --let the reader observe these words--"then let those in Judaea escape to the hills
Is every word of God important?
KJV Luk 4:4 And Jesus answered him, saying, It is written, That man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God.
The NIV, NLT, ESV, NASB, GWT, ASV, ERV, WNT and the RSV all remove the phrase " but by every word of God" from this verse. Why? If the writers had not removed this phrase, they would have been rebuking themselves because they have removed an extraordinary amount of God's words from these Bibles.
RSV And Jesus answered him, "It is written, `Man shall not live by bread alone.'"
Is all scripture given by inspiration of God?
KJV 2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
The KJV and most other Bibles state that ALL scripture is given by inspiration of God. However, the ASV, DRB and ERV change this wording slightly so that they can pick and choose which scripture they want to believe is inspired by God.
ERV Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness:
Why did Jesus come?
KJV Luk 9:55 But he turned, and rebuked them, and said, Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of. Luk 9:56 For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them. And they went to another village.
The KJV tells us that Jesus came to save. The NIV, NLT, ESV, ISV, GWT, ASV, ERV, WNT and the RSV remove that message from this verse.
ISV But he turned and rebuked them, and they all went on to another village.
Did Jesus shed even a drop of blood for man?
KJV Luk 22:43 And there appeared an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him. Luk 22:44 And being in an agony he prayed more earnestly: and his sweat was as it were great drops of blood falling down to the ground.
These two verses have been removed in the RSV because the writers do not believe in the Atonement of sins, so they don't believe that Jesus shed one drop of blood for us.
Are we to keep the commandments of God?
KJV Rev 22:14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
The following Bibles all replace the phrase "that do his commandments" with "who wash their robes"; NIV, NLT, ESV, NASB, ISV, GWT, ASV, DRB, DBT, ERV, WNT and the RSV.
NIV Blessed are those who wash their robes, that they may have the right to the tree of life and may go through the gates into the city
Did the Gentiles keep the 7th day Sabbath?
KJV Act 13:42 And when the Jews were gone out of the synagogue, the Gentiles besought that these words might be preached to them the next sabbath.
The KJV makes it clear that the Jews and the Gentiles kept the 7th day Sabbath. Many other versions of the Bible change the wording on this verse to hide this fact. Some simply remove the word Jews and replace it with the names of Paul and Barnabas. Some replace the word "Gentile" with the word "People". Others like the GWT go even further and replace "Sabbath" with "next day of worship".
GWT As Paul and Barnabas were leaving the synagogue, the people invited them to speak on the same subject the next day of worship.
Who was Christ sacrificed for?
KJV 1Co 5:7 Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
Several Bibles remove the words "for us" at the end of this verse. Christ was sacrificed for us. Shouldn't the reader of every Bible be told that?
NIV Get rid of the old yeast that you may be a new batch without yeast--as you really are. For Christ, our Passover lamb, has been sacrificed.
Did Jesus perform miracles?
KJV Joh 2:11 This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.
The word miracle/miracles occurs 32 times in the KJV new testament. Most new versions of the Bible remove the word miracle completely 23 times and discount it in the margins the other 9 instances where it is left.
ESV This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory. And his disciples believed in him
Creation or Evolution?
KJV Heb 11:3 Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.
YLT by faith we understand the ages to have been prepared by a saying of God, in regard to the things seen not having come out of things appearing;
The YLT changes "World" to "Ages". We can know what the intention of this change is by going right to the source. Wescott, co-writer of the Westcott and Hort text of the New Testament which many of the newer Bibles are based, tells us exactly why this change was made.
Heb. xi. 3 : By faith we understand that the worlds (the ages, i.e. the universe under the aspect of time) have been formed by the Word of God. . . . The whole sequence of life in time, which we call " the world," has been " fitted together" by God. His one creative word included the harmonious unfolding on one plan of the last issues of all that was made. That which is in relation to Him "one act at once" is in relation to us an evolution apprehended in orderly succession.
Source: Some Lessons of the Revised Version of the New Testament By the Right Rev. Brooke Foss Westcott Pg 187
Wescott tells us in that last line that the change was made because "one act at once" (creation) is from our viewpoint actually evolution. If we are to believe Wescott, we must reject the fact that the Bible tells us specifically that creation took place over a period of 6 days.
KJV Gen 2:1 Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them. Gen 2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.
Should Jesus Christ be removed from the Bible?
KJV Eph 3:9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:
Thirteen of the Bibles that I looked at removed Jesus Christ from this verse.
ESV and to bring to light for everyone what is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things
Did Christ shed His blood for our sins?
KJV Col 1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:
Fourteen of the Bibles that I looked at removed "through His blood" from this verse. Can it be a simple coincidence that the shedding of blood by Christ for our sins is repeatedly removed from the newer Bibles?
ASV in whom we have our redemption, the forgiveness of our sins
Could it be that the word "blood" was mistranslated? Here is the same verse with the Strong's numbers and the definition for the word "blood" (G129)
Col 1:14 InG1722 whomG3739 we haveG2192 redemptionG629 throughG1223 hisG846 blood,G129 even theG3588 forgivenessG859 of sins:G266
G129 aima hah'ee-mah Of uncertain derivation; blood, literally (of men or animals), figuratively (the juice of grapes) or specifically (the atoning blood of Christ); by implication bloodshed, also kindred: - blood.
Will we mourn over Jesus when He returns?
KJV Rev 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
The NASB makes it sound like Jesus will be dead when He returns. Why would people mourn over Him if He were alive?
NASB BEHOLD, HE IS COMING WITH THE CLOUDS, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. So it is to be. Amen.
When will judgment take place?
KJV 2Ti 4:1 I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;
The NIV and other Bibles replace "at His appearing" with "in view of His appearing". Is there a judgment day which will take place at the second coming or will judgment take place at another time?
NIV In the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who will judge the living and the dead, and in view of his appearing and his kingdom, I give you this charge:
Is there power in fasting?
KJV 1Co 7:5 Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency.
In many ways the NLT translation below is easier to understand than the KJV above, however the NLT leaves out an important word. That word is "fasting". We can demonstrate our sincerity in praying by combining that prayer with fasting at times. Should this word be removed from this verse?
NLT Do not deprive each other of sexual relations, unless you both agree to refrain from sexual intimacy for a limited time so you can give yourselves more completely to prayer. Afterward, you should come together again so that Satan won't be able to tempt you because of your lack of self-control.
Can we forgive sins?
KJV Jas 5:16 Confess your faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.
NASB Therefore, confess your sins to one another, and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The effective prayer of a righteous man can accomplish much.
The NASB and many other Bibles replace the word "faults" with "sins". The Greek word and Strong's definition of this word is: G3900 parapto-ma par-ap'-to-mah From G3895; a side slip (lapse or deviation), that is, (unintentional) error or (wilful) transgression: - fall, fault, offence, sin, trespass.
We see that the Bibles that make this change, take a secondary meaning, an explanation of the word "transgression" and apply it as the primary meaning for this word. Compare this to the word which has sin as its primary meaning. G266 hamartia ham-ar-tee'-ah From G264; sin (properly abstract): - offence, sin (-ful).
The previous verse uses the word "sin" (G266 above) KJV Jas 5:15 And the prayer of faith shall save the sick, and the Lord shall raise him up; and if he have committed sins, they shall be forgiven him.
The intention of James is clear in these two verses. James used two different words, with two different meanings to relate two different ideas. This change in many of the newer Bibles has dramatic doctrinal implications. Namely, that one person may forgive another person's sins. This is not Biblical. The Bible teaches that we may forgive each others faults. Sins on the other hand, are committed against God. Only God can forgive sins. Did the writers of the newer Bibles may make this change in order to support their doctrinal belief in the confessional?
Is understanding the word of God reserved for a select few?
KJV Act 15:23 And they wrote letters by them after this manner; The apostles and elders and brethren send greeting unto the brethren which are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia:
NLT This is the letter they took with them: "This letter is from the apostles and elders, your brothers in Jerusalem. It is written to the Gentile believers in Antioch, Syria, and Cilicia. Greetings!
These two Bibles relay very different meanings in reference to whom the letter is from. The KJV says the apostles and elders and brethren. The NLT says only the apostles and elders. Is this significant? It was important enough for the writers of many of the newer Bibles to make a concerted effort to remove the brethren from this verse. These newer versions had to add or subtract 2 Greek words in order to make this change. This change implies that the brethren have no place in preaching the gospel. This is exactly the tactic used by many churches in the past, and even some in the present to keep the people from learning the truth about the word of God. For example, in the dark ages it was forbidden for the average person to read the Bible. God promises to give wisdom to all who ask, not just the elders and apostles.
KJV Jas 1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him.
How many judgments are there?
KJV Heb 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
Many of the newer Bibles remove the definite article "the" from this verse, effectively taking away The Judgment and implying multiple judgments.
NIV Just as man is destined to die once, and after that to face judgment
We can know why this change was made by quoting Canon Farrar. He was as a member of the Apostles club which the original writers of the "New Bibles" were members of. Mr. Farrar states this was a deliberate change with the intent of adding the intermediate state doctrine. "In the omission of that unauthorized little article from the authorized version by the revisers, lies no less a doctrine than that of the existence of an intermediate state" -Canon F.W. Farrar, Contemporary Review, March, 1882.
In other words, Farrar openly states that the change was made in order to introduce the purgatory doctrine into the Bible.
May we pray for the dead?
KJV Luke 1:72 To perform the mercy promised to our fathers, and to remember his holy covenant;
NIV to show mercy to our fathers and to remember his holy covenant
Notice the KJV says that Christ came to perform the mercy that had already been promised. The NIV changes this to mean that Christ came to show mercy at the time of His coming. The "fathers" spoken of here were already dead at the time of Christ's coming. The mercy had already been showed, they had already been promised this mercy. This change was made to instill the idea that we may pray for the dead. Is this another attempt to bring an intermediate state or limbo/purgatory into the Bible?
Is it possible to preach to the dead?
KJV 1Pe 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
ASV For unto this end was the gospel preached even to the dead, that they might be judged indeed according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
The KJV makes it clear that the gospel WAS preached to them that ARE now dead. It was preached to them while they were alive. Some of the newer Bibles change this wording to give the idea that the gospel was preached to people after they had already died. I must give my mother credit for showing me this truth. There was a time, not too long ago when I had listened to a Pastor who taught from the wrong Bible on this subject. A quick word from Mom let me know I needed to go research this further.
Who will be resurrected?
KJV Act 24:15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust.
Some of the new Bibles leave out the words "of the dead" indicating that there is an intermediate state of limbo or purgatory
NIV and I have the same hope in God as these men, that there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the wicked
Will we be resurrected in the flesh?
KJV Job 19:26 And though after my skin worms destroy this body, yet in my flesh shall I see God:
The ASV changes this verse to say "without my flesh". The KJV tells us we will be resurrected, the ASV indicates we will be turned into a being without flesh. Most Bibles remain consistent with the KJV on this verse.
ASV And after my skin, even this body, is destroyed, Then without my flesh shall I see God
KJV Job 26:5 Dead things are formed from under the waters, and the inhabitants thereof.
The NIV introduces the idea of people living in some sort of place beneath the oceans and enduring deep anguish. Is this another attempt to introduce purgatory into the Bible?
NIV the dead are in deep anguish, those beneath the waters and all that live in them.
I will readily admit at the time of this writing that I do not fully understand the meaning of this verse. This is all the more reason for me to have a Bible that has not been changed, especially by people who appear to have an ulterior motive.
KJV 2Pe 2:9 The Lord knoweth how to deliver the godly out of temptations, and to reserve the unjust unto the day of judgment to be punished:
The KJV here states that the unjust will be punished on judgment day. The NIV changes this verse in many ways, one of which is another blatant contradiction. "While continuing their punishment". It states that the unjust are continually punished. Yet another attempt to introduce the idea of people burning in hell, in torment for eternity. Is this the action of a just God? Would a compassionate God torment anyone for eternity for the sins committed during a lifespan of a mere 120 years or less? Is this the actions of the God we serve?
NIV if this is so, then the Lord knows how to rescue godly men from trials and to hold the unrighteous for the day of judgment, while continuing their punishment
Was your name written in the book of the lamb from the foundation of the world?
This next verse confuses many people and many of the newer Bibles ad to this confusion.
KJV Rev 13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.
What is the phrase "from the foundation of the world" referring to? The Lamb. The Lamb was slain from the foundation of the world. Notice the capital "L" in lamb. This verse is telling us that Jesus (the Lamb) was slain from the foundation of the world. In other words, God knew the sacrifice He would pay for us, when He created us. He has a book of life, and those people who worship the beast will not have their names written in His book of life. The message here is clear. Don't worship the beast or your name will not be written in the book of life by Jesus. Some of the newer Bibles change this verse.
ASV And all that dwell on the earth shall worship him, every one whose name hath not been written from the foundation of the world in the book of life of the Lamb that hath been slain
Now what is the phrase "from the foundation of the world" referring to? The writing of the names in the book of life. A complete change in doctrine. Now what we do doesn't matter. Those who are to be saved were picked from the very beginning. The rest are just pawns in a twisted game devised by an unjust god.
Was the body of Christ for us, or was the sacrifice of Christ for us?
KJV 1Co 11:24 And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
Take eat; this is my body which is broken for you. Here Christ breaks the bread and tells them to eat the bread in remembrance of Him and His body which will be broken for them (us).
Now look at these versions:
NIV and when he had given thanks, he broke it and said, "This is my body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of me."
NLT and gave thanks to God for it. Then he broke it in pieces and said, "This is my body, which is given for you. Do this to remember me."
ESV and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, "This is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me."
NASB and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, "This is My body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of Me."
These versions tell us that the bread is literally Christ's body. Notice the phrase "take, eat" and the word "broken" are removed. Now Christ's sacrifice wasn't for us, His body is for us.
Is Jesus a liar?
KJV Joh 7:8 Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up yet unto this feast; for my time is not yet full come.
NLT You go on. I'm not going to this festival, because my time has not yet come
The KJV tells us that Jesus says "I go not up yet". Some of the newer bibles simply say "I'm not going" yet two verses later we are told that Jesus went. These newer versions make Jesus out to be a liar.
NLT But after his brothers left for the festival, Jesus also went, though secretly, staying out of public view.
Was Jesus born of a virgin?
KJV Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
The RSV replaces "virgin" with "young woman" It would not be much of a sign if it were simply a young woman who conceived.
RSV  Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, a young woman shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Imman'u-el
Should we leave God out of the Bible?
KJV Psa 45:6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre.
RSV  Your divine throne endures for ever and ever. Your royal scepter is a scepter of equity;
RSV changes "Thy throne, O God" to "Your divine throne" with a footnote that says "God is your throne". This change was made because this verse is quoted in Hebrews 1:8 and applied to Jesus. This means that Jesus is God. The writers of the RSV wanted to remove all traces that Jesus is God.
KJV Heb 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
God or gods?
KJV KJV Dan 3:25 He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.
KJV 2000 He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they are not hurt; and the form of the fourth is like a son of the gods
The RSV, NIV, ASV and even the KJV 2000 all replace "Son of God" with "son of the gods". Notice the capital "S" and "G" have been replaced with lower case letters. The lower case "gods" in the Bible is reserved for pagan deities. The intent here is clear since the singular "God" is reduced to the plural "gods". Who was in the fiery furnace with Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego? Who saved these men? Was it Jesus as the original King James Version states, or was it the son of a group of pagan deities? If it was the latter, then we now have a base for polytheistic worship found in our Bible. Shall we bow down to zeus and horace now? God forbid! This is a perfect example of why I personally avoid ALL of the newer Bibles including the New KJV. I recently had a well meaning and very sincere Pastor attempt to reason with me using this very passage from the NKJ. He was using the little "g" in this verse to make his point. I simply replied that my Bible didn't have a little "g" in that verse. This was a well trained Pastor which I have a lot of respect for. He is sincere and would not intentionally mislead anyone. The incident illustrated to me that even the elect are mislead by these newer Bibles.
Did God work for Nebuchadnezzar?
KJV Daniel 4:2 I thought it good to shew the signs and wonders that the high God hath wrought toward me.
The KJV tells us that the signs and wonders of God were wrought towards Nebuchadnezzar. The NKJ tells us that the signs and wonders were worked for Nebuchadnezzar.
NKJ I thought it good to declare the signs and wonders that the Most High God has worked for me.
Does it matter whether it is written as God, god or gods?
KJV Dan 3:15 Now if ye be ready that at what time ye hear the sound of the cornet, flute, harp, sackbut, psaltery, and dulcimer, and all kinds of musick, ye fall down and worship the image which I have made; well: but if ye worship not, ye shall be cast the same hour into the midst of a burning fiery furnace; and who is that God that shall deliver you out of my hands?
The NKJ changes the word God to god in this verse.
NKJ Now if you are ready at the time you hear the sound of the horn, flute, harp, lyre, and psaltery, in symphony with all kinds of music, and you fall down and worship the image which I have made, good! But if you do not worship, you shall be cast immediately into the midst of a burning fiery furnace. And who is the god who will deliver you from my hands?”
KJV Dan 4:9 O Belteshazzar, master of the magicians, because I know that the spirit of the holy gods is in thee, and no secret troubleth thee, tell me the visions of my dream that I have seen, and the interpretation thereof.
The NKJ changes "spirit of the holy gods" to "Spirit of the Holy God".
NKJ Belteshazzar, chief of the magicians, because I know that the Spirit of the Holy God is in you, and no secret troubles you, explain to me the visions of my dream that I have seen, and its interpretation.
I found several more times where the NKJ had either changed God to god, or changed gods to God in the book of Daniel alone. For example: Daniel 4:8, 4:18, 5:11, 5:14, 6:7, 6:12 and 11:38.
Who is the Father of Jesus?
KJV Luk 2:33 And Joseph and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him.
NIV The child's father and mother marveled at what was said about him.
Many of the newer Bibles replace "Joseph" with "his father". Is this a blatant attack on the divinity of Jesus or was the King James Version simply in error? You be the judge. Here is the original Greek along with the definition according to Strong's dictionary.
G2501 ee-o-safe' Of Hebrew origin [H3130]; Joseph, the name of seven Israelites: - Joseph.
Is Jesus Lord?
KJV Mat 13:51 Jesus saith unto them, Have ye understood all these things? They say unto him, Yea, Lord.
NLT Do you understand all these things?" "Yes," they said, "we do."
The NIV, RSV and many others remove the word "Lord" from the end of this verse. Did the King James add this word or did the NIV and RSV remove it? You be the judge. Here is the verse along with the Strong's numbers for each word. Notice there is a number next to the word "Lord" indicating that it was translated from a Greek word and not simply added.
Mat 13:51 JesusG2424 saithG3004 unto them,G846 Have ye understoodG4920 allG3956 these things? TheyG5023 sayG3004 unto him,G846 Yea,G3483 Lord.G2962
We can now look up that number to find the original Greek word along with the definition.
G2962 kurios koo'-ree-os From kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
If the writers of the NIV, RSV and others had changed the word "Lord" to "sir", then perhaps it could be seen as a difference of opinion in how to translate the word. But they didn't do that. They removed it all together because it is clear what the translation should be. This is not an isolated incidence. Every instance that states that Jesus is Lord has been removed from the NIV. Do we want to read a Bible that intentionally leaves out words? Should we trust these Bibles?
God or simply a teacher?
KJV Mat 19:16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? Mat 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
RSV And behold, one came up to him, saying, "Teacher, what good deed must I do, to have eternal life?"
Here again the translators of the newer Bibles have omitted a word. For the sake of saving space, I will not continue to display the Strong's definitions here. However if you doubt what I write here, please look it up for yourself.
The translators omitted the word "Good" and changed the word "Master" to "teacher". Why? The man speaking to Jesus recognized that Jesus was the Messiah hence his choice of words "good master".
In the next verse Jesus challenges the man, asking him "Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God". Jesus makes it clear that he recognizes that this man understands that He (Jesus) is God. Jesus then tells the man what only God could tell him with such confidence; the "secret" to eternal life.
Notice how the RSV changes the application of the word "good" away from Jesus and applies it only to the deed.
RSV  And he said to him, "Why do you ask me about what is good? One there is who is good. If you would enter life, keep the commandments."
Did Jesus fulfill prophecy?
KJV Mat 27:35 And they crucified him, and parted his garments, casting lots: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, They parted my garments among them, and upon my vesture did they cast lots.
Take a quick look at this same verse in these other Bibles. What is missing?
RSV  And when they had crucified him, they divided his garments among them by casting lots;
NIV When they had crucified him, they divided up his clothes by casting lots
NLT After they had nailed him to the cross, the soldiers gambled for his clothes by throwing dice
ESV And when they had crucified him, they divided his garments among them by casting lots
NASB And when they had crucified Him, they divided up His garments among themselves by casting lots
We could go on with an exhaustive list of newer Bibles, but I will stop here. The same words are missing from everyone of these Bibles. Why? Isn't it important to know that this act fulfilled a prophecy. More importantly, is it the duty of the translator to translate, or is it their duty to remove what they don't think is important? Doesn't the fact that this act fulfilled a prophecy add credibility to Jesus being our Savior? Why then have these words been removed from so many Bibles? This is not the omission of one word. It is the omission of a complete phrase. It is an attempt to omit the foretelling of and the deity of Jesus Christ.
Speaking of missing
KJV Mar 15:28 And the scripture was fulfilled, which saith, And he was numbered with the transgressors.
Can you find that verse in the RSV?
RSV  And with him they crucified two robbers, one on his right and one on his left.  And those who passed by derided him, wagging their heads, and saying, "Aha! You who would destroy the temple and build it in three days,
Verse 28 is completely missing in the RSV, NIV, NLT, GWT, ERV and WNT. Another attempt to remove the fact that Jesus fulfilled prophecy?
Is Jesus the Christ?
KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.
RSV  and every spirit which does not confess Jesus is not of God. This is the spirit of antichrist, of which you heard that it was coming, and now it is in the world already.
Is there a comma missing there, or is that a double negative stating that those who confess that Jesus is of God, are antichrist? If it is a double negative, it not only states that Jesus is not God, but further that Jesus is not even "of God". If it is simply an oversight in omitting a comma, then the NIV and several other Bibles made that same exact oversight.
NIV but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming and even now is already in the world.
Take a closer look at those verses though. The KJV states that those who do not confess that Jesus Christ came in the flesh, is antichrist. These other versions simply say "acknowledge Jesus" or "confess Jesus" These versions leave out the divinity of Jesus. They leave out the "Christ is come in the flesh". In doing so, they violate this very scripture. They condemn themselves.
Are the words of Jesus Christ important?
KJV Mat 6:13 And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.
Ten Bibles that I looked at, including the NIV leave out the phrase "For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen." This is "red letter" text spoken by Jesus Himself. Why did so many Bibles leave it out?
NIV And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one
Is our Father in heaven?
KJV Luk 11:2 And he said unto them, When ye pray, say, Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so in earth.
Many newer Bibles including the NIV, NLT, ESV, NASB and many others remove the phrase "Which art in heaven" from this verse. Why? Because the writers would like the pope to be called "father". These same writers want the world to pray to the pope who they consider "God on earth" rather than the one true God who is in heaven.
NASB And He said to them, "When you pray, say: 'Father, hallowed be Your name. Your kingdom come.
Did Jesus show His hands and feet?
KJV Luk 24:40 And when he had thus spoken, he shewed them his hands and his feet.
This verse is missing from the RSV. Why? It seems important. This is after Jesus had risen and He was showing His hands and feet where He had been crucified.
Is the Son of man in heaven?
KJV Joh 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
The phrase "which is in heaven" has been removed from many Bibles such as the NIV, NLT, NASB, ESV and more. Why? Because many believe that the pope is the "vicar of Christ" or "God on earth". If Jesus is in heaven, then the Pope cannot be Christ.
NLT No one has ever gone to heaven and returned. But the Son of Man has come down from heaven
Is Jesus playing peek a boo?
KJV Joh 16:16 A little while, and ye shall not see me: and again, a little while, and ye shall see me, because I go to the Father.
The NIV, NLT, NASB, ESV and more Bibles leave out the phrase "because I go to the Father". Isn't that the point of the verse. What does this verse mean without that phrase?
NIV In a little while you will see me no more, and then after a little while you will see me.
Is Jesus Christ the Son of God?
KJV Act 8:37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
The RSV, NIV, NLT, ESV,ISV, GWT, DBT, ERV, WNT and the WEB all remove Acts 8:37 completely. Look for yourself. These versions go from Acts 8:36 to Acts 8:38. They leave out the most important part. We must believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. Why would all of these Bibles eliminate this verse?
In the name of the Lord Jesus
KJV Act 9:29 And he spake boldly in the name of the Lord Jesus, and disputed against the Grecians: but they went about to slay him.
The NIV, NLT, ESV, and NASB all remove the phrase "in the name of the Lord Jesus". They literally remove the Lord Jesus from the Bible".
NIV He talked and debated with the Grecian Jews, but they tried to kill him
The father of the lie has been deceiving people since the Garden of Eden. The people who built the tower of babel fell prey to his wiles, as well as generation after generation of God's chosen people. Now we are in the final days and satan is ramping up his attacks, becoming more and more desperate and bold in a battle for our very souls. These new Bibles are at the front line of that battle. There is no question that in many ways these new Bibles are easier to understand the KJV. The question is; are they accurately portraying the word of God?
I felt as though I was on the front line of a battle while writing this article. The more I attempted to edit this article to make it shorter, the longer it became. I have barely scratched the surface on the differences in these newer Bibles. There was one day that I sat down to work on the article and the file simply would not open. I came back to it a few days later and it opened just fine. Another time I had been writing for several hours and the program suddenly stopped responding. I realized I had not been saving my work and as I forced the program to close, I knew those few hours of work were gone. I shut everything down and reopened the file. Sure enough several hours worth of work were gone. I always spend time in prayer and ask God to guide me when I write about the Bible. Naturally, I took this to mean that I must have written something that day, that I shouldn't have. I skipped ahead to where I had left off, content to leave out what I had written earlier. Suddenly about 5 minutes into writing, a new page opened and everything I had written earlier in the day was there. I cannot explain either of these instances, perhaps a program expert could. I simply know that I have spent thousands of hours using this program on this computer and have never had any thing like this happen in the past.
I will leave off here with a few pertinent verses from the KJV Bible.
Mat 4:4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.
Isa 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.
Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: Rev 22:19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
Key to the Bible abbreviations used in this article
ABIPE- Aramaic Bible in Plain English
AKJV- American King James Version
ASV- American Standard Version
DBT- Darby Bible Translation
DRB- Douay-Rheims Bible
ERV- English Revised Version
ESV- English Standard Version
GWT- GOD'S WORD Translation
ISV- International Standard Version
KJV- King James Bible
KJV 2000- King James 2000 Bible
NASB- New American Standard Bible
NIV- New International Version
NKJ- New King James
NLT- New Living Translation
NWT- New World Translation
RSV- Revised Standard Version
WBT- Webster's Bible Translation
WEB- World English Bible
WNT- Weymouth New Testament
YLT- Young's Literal Translation